Questions:
- Basing on the Aristotlean framework, is it right to program this example? Why?
If you base it on Aristotle's definition of moral virtue which is that the right is within the mean (center) of two extremes. So looking on the extremes, on the negative side of the situation, we could say that they are just ripping other people off their money and that they're scamming other people. On the positive side, swoopo earns money through the bidding while the customer gets the item he wants and besides that, the money they earn from the bidding, the money that the customer pays for the item is used to buy the item auctioned and so, if they do not charge a fee for bidding, they won't earn anything at all so it's just a proper deal. Although there is yet again a negative in it. The fact that they auction something that they don't really have yet.
Recently, I have visite Swoopo.com and I have seen that they inform customers about the extra fee they charge and about the 20 seconds addition to the time. In conclusion, after analyzing the two extremes I would consider the said situation still a wrong thing for the three negatives I have observed in the sitiuation. Ripping other people off their money or rather charging a fee for every bid, scamming other people and selling something that they don't have yet. Although they inform customers of the fee, it is just a little too much to charge every bid, maybe they could instead just give a fixed charge for a certain range of bids for example 1-10 bids, 11-20 bids. Then the other thing is that they put something they don't even have yet up for sale. I think that on the customer's part, it's just not fair to sell them something that isn't really there yet especially because it doesn't give you the assurance that they would be able to give you a product of the same quality as what they have described. On my opinion, due to these reasons, the negative extreme is heavier than the positive so it is not within the mean and still plainly wrong.
2. Compare your answer to your previous one, did it change? Explain.
Comparing my answer to the question similar to this one, I give the result of no change in my answer. The thing about this is that, no matter how I look at it, on my point of view or through the Aristotlean framework, it just seems simply wrong to do such thing for being unfair and the negative extreme of the situation weighs more than that of the positive extreme and as we all know, Aristotle said that the right is within the mean or center of two extremes and the said situation is far from the mean. The only thing that I have changed in my answer between the two questions is my explanation itself. On my point of view, I only pointed out their bidding fee, and on the second one, basing on Aristotle's definition of moral virtue, I have included the items for sale not yet really "there" as a reason. "There" in a sense that the bidders are assure that the description and quality of the product they put under bidding are the same in actuality.
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